Thanks alot see that was better I will retest..j know it's not worth it and is one of the biggest mistakes in my life. I was poked without a condom and ****** him without a condom no cun or anything.
It's simple....you cannot guage YOUR risk of HIV based on what one of your partners' tests show. Meaning, if you got HIV from your MSM anal exposure, there would be no guarantee your GF would become pos from having sex with you after that, even if you were +. She may have lucked out. The only way YOU will know YOUR status is by testing. A negative at 8 weeks is a VERY good sign, but follow up with a test at 3 months.
And, FYI, unprotected anal among men is one of the highest risk activities there is, with the bottom being the highest risk. Simply put...you take many chances like that, you WILL end up with HIV. Use a condom EVERY time for insertive anal or vaginal sex, period! You may have gotten lucky this time, but the risk is not worth it.
Less than 3 months post-exposure.
Who's says I'm positive! I mean from negative to poz
You mean from positive to negative? Nil.
What do you think the chance of it changing is
That was easier you see, but a rest at 8 weeks is highly unlikely to change. And then using her result it's like so negative!
Look, conclusive negative result is only obtainable beyond 3 months post-exposure, yours was 2 months post-exposure. And not all unprotected vaginal/anal sex transmit HIV, but they COULD transmit HIV. That girl from Feb 11 was lucky not to contract it from you given her test result at 3 months post-exposure. But that doesn't mean you're absolutely HIV free by now, because unprotected anal sex with an HIV+ is statistically a high risk one (one among 100-200 anal sex with an HIV positive partner can transmit one).
Shortly said, you had an HIV risk and need to get tested for the sake of clarity.
If she didn't have it from me then most likely mines is negative! That's what I ment
I suggest you reread what has been written and try to internalise it before raising a new question.
So does that mea I don't have it either
So does that mea I don't have it either
I've told you she didn't have it from you.
I will go tested, but after the male to male risk my test at 8 weeks was negative. Plus if I had HIV because in February I cum in the girl 3 times I'm sure there would of been a great chance of her catching it if I had it?
"Btw the exposure in dec was a male to male act"
That's why you need to get tested for HIV. And you both don't get HIV from each other with the one on Feb 11. Just get tested with an HIV antibody test now.
That makes sense but you don't get were Im coming from obviously if she was negative then I must not of had HIV to pass onto her?? Btw the exposure in dec was a male to male act
Well you definitely didn't contract HIV from the girl on Feb 11 because she's been HIV negative. But whether it's from the girl from the Christmas day, you'll know from a test result conducted soon from now. Any negative result by then will be conclusive.
And she was the girl I had after my high risk exposure on the 25th December. So if she ain't got HIV off me obviously I must not have it then? Or is this incorrect
No, her test result has been 3 months post-exposure since you had had that sex with her, so she didn't get HIV from you.
I had unprotected anal sex, but if I did catch anything then wouldn't it have passed on to the above person? That's the question I'm asking
If you mean unprotected vaginal and/or anal sex with the one on 25/12, then the time has been ripe now for you to get a conclusive negative result.
No I had sex with someone before her back on december 25th
Now I'm confused. Do you mean you had another sex with her after the sex that you described in the initial post?