positive. However, he said in the duration of their 5 month relationship, they have performed anal penetration, and that as of 3 weeks ago he had been tested negative. My situation is that after we had anal sex
, the simple fact that his past partner was poz, and that his rectum bleed has left me completely discomforting and freaked out. I'm wondering how likely of an exposure I have. I did use a condom, proper amount of lubrication, and there is no indication of his rectal bleeding on the condom (just on the towel used to whipe the area there after). Considering his past relationship, and even though he said they didn't perform any sexual activity (both anal and oral), and that his test as of 3 weeks ago was negative, am I at risk for exposure and contraction? Someone PLEASE reassure and ease my mind.
so even though he claims that he never had sexual intercourse with his partner in the past 5 months, and his rectum bled but was not visible on the condom, and the condom did not break even though I ejaculated in it while I was inside of him...there is no possible exposure?