I am going to set up a time to see my doctor, however, I would appreciate a little insight before then. I received results in the mail as to a recent blood sample given when at my annual ob/gyn visit. They offered the HIV
test, and I said "sure". I am married, and it has been years since having another partner (pre-marriage), but since I have never been tested, I went ahead and did so.
Test date was 1/9/09.
Reads like this:
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Procedure
HIV
-1 antibody only. If Western Blot is desired to confirm the presence of HIV-2 antibody, a physician order must be placed.
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So really, all that is freaking me out is the second sentence in that "Important" section. I think they are just telling me if HIV-1 antibody were positive, it would be confirmed by Western Blot. They told me the health department would contact me if I had a positive result, and I have not received any phone calls. Again, it has been years since any possible exposure...