I am a 25 YO, heterosexual, non-IV drug using healthy male. In my life, I have had two unprotected penile-vaginal sex episodes, both of which occurred about two years ago with a non-IV drug using female of the same age. The unprotected portion of my sexual escapades lasted for ~1min after which I put a condom on because I realized my stupidity.
My question is this: what is the probability that someone was infected with HIV a few years ago, shows no symptoms, and is HIV positive? The internet literature leads one to believe that HIV infection regularly occurs with no noticeable symptoms.
Additionally, what are your thoughts on my particular situation? Should I get tested?
PS your forum is great and very well-run.
Sorry, there are no doctors on this forum. To speak with one of them, you must visit the Expert Forums, and navigate to that HIV Prevention board.
HIV is usually asymptomatic at onset. In fact, it is many times more likely that, upon infection, a person will show no symptoms whatsoever. Often, HIV positive persons remain asymptomatic for many years. I know several long-term non-progressive persons who are much healther than I, and have never been on meds. This is why one CANNOT use symptoms to assess whether they, themselves, or another person has been infected with HIV.
in regards to your situation, I would suggest you test. Anyone who has unprotected vaginal or anal intercourse with a person of unknown status should test to know their status. Since the only two events you metioned happend 2 years ago, an HIV antibody test will tell you, conclusively, whether you were infected during any of those incidents. I hope this answers your questions. Be well.
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