Hi there!
So I'm a 24 y.o. male and I had a sexual encounter with an unknown guy on Christmas last year, in which both he and I gave and received unprotected oral sex from each other. There was no anal intercourse whatsoever. He definitely didn't ejaculate in my mouth, and I didn't notice any pre-ejaculatory fluid, although I can't tell that for sure since he might've had it in a very small amount and thus, went unnoticeable. The next day I received unprotected oral sex from another guy, although I can't remember whether or not I s****d him in return (I believe not, but the truth is I really can't remember). Even if I did, it must've been less than 5 seconds. But my concern is, as he was really hard, I'm worried that he might've had pre-***, although again, he definitely didn't ejaculate in my mouth. I don't believe I had any cut or sore in my mouth at the time of both encounters, let alone any bleeding wound, although about a week after the last encounter I noticed I had quite a sore ulcer in my mouth which disappeared after a few days.
During the 2-4 weeks period after the last oral sex I didn't have any fever, rash, muscle pain, or swollen glands, but almost before the 4th week elapsed, I started having a sore throat and flu, and 2 nights ago I had a fever (no sweats) which disappeared the next morning. I'm still having the flu now (5th week), but it's mostly nasal congestion and sneezing, no cough or shivering whatsoever. No further fever has ever occurred.
I was tested last week for HIV and it came out negative. But the duration might be too short for a test (4 weeks after the possible exposure), so I'm planning to test again in the end of March (precisely 3 months after the sex). Meanwhile, I can't get this thing out of my head while waiting for March to come. Everything I read on the internet contradicts each other. Most of them indicate that my circumstances should not lead to any transmission, but who knows. I'll be really glad if you could share your thoughts.