Just some clarification and help, please.

Hi, everyone.

I hope you're all enjoying the summer.  A bit of background: I'm 22, bisexual, and have only been sexually active for 4 years.  I've only had 4 sex partners and I have never had vaginal or anal sex (if I would it would be protected); only oral sex (giving and receiving and never having any ejaculate in my mouth) and mutual masturbation.  I also always ask my partner's HIV status and don't consent without it.  

I tested negative for HIV 8 weeks after my first sexual experience - a conclusive result considering the low-risk nature and time-frame of my test.  Essentially, my anxiety is what drove me to the test.  But, I'm glad that I had it because it cleared my mind.  

The last of my sexual experiences post-testing have been in the last 2 years.

So . . . present day.  The following post of mine details an experience with a "jock itch" rash that I've been having:  http://www.medhelp.org/posts/Dermatology/Jock-Itch--Eczema--Should-I-be-worried/show/1270012?personal_page_id=1413052#post_5817572

Like the doctor said in this post, acute HIV is out of the question due to the short time-span that my rash manifested itself.  So, my current question / clarification: it's pretty much ridiculous of me to even think about this rash being a result of advanced HIV, right?  I know that skin conditions can manifest themselves with advanced HIV - but considering that I've only had theoretical risk experiences, many of which experts would argue as zero risk, within two years (only with two partners who stated that they are HIV negative), advanced HIV is also out of the question, right?  The rest of my general health is fine, and I'm not NEARLY as anxious about this as I was 4 years ago after my first test.  This is more for the sake of my own education and relief.

I feel like I've learned so much from these forums, I just need to talk through my concerns to get them off my chest.  I'd greatly appreciate any comments and clarifications.  Thank you in advance for any help!

[avonelle38]

You have never had sexual intercourse. That means you cannot POSSIBLY, under any circumstances, have HIV. HIV is NOT transmitted by masturbation/oral sex. It simply does not happen. You describe an extremely safe sexual lifestyle. Continue to do that and you will always remain HIV-free!

[GettingBetter2010]

Thanks for the quick response!

I appreciate the help.  So it's really that simple, huh?  Oral sex = no HIV.  

Just for my own education, rashes of my nature (if they were to result from HIV) would really only appear in advanced HIV right?  And 2 years is way too soon for advanced HIV to develop, right?

Thanks again for the info!

[LIZZIE LOU]

transmission requires vaginal or anal penetration.

your rash is NOT hiv related.

[GettingBetter2010]

Thanks, Lizzie.

Your advice is top-notch!

[LIZZIE LOU]

:)