Aa
Just some verification
Hi,
I was just looking for some verification and someone to clear up my confusion. Over three months ago I engaged in possibly protected sex with a man from Ireland who I did not know and whose HIV status was/is unknown to me. The reason I say "possibly" is because I forced him to put on a condom, which I watched him do, but during the course of the sex (which was vaginal) I am not certain that the condom stayed on.
Exactly 102 days after the event (three months and ten days) I went to a Planned Parenthood in Frederick, MD, and was tested for HIV 1/2 using the Rapid HIV Antibody Test via a finger prick (I had to wait 15-20 minutes for results). It came up negative or nonreactive. I believe the test was Clearview Complete HIV 1/2 assay because the nurse gave me a little sheet with all the HIV info on it with that brand label. However, during the three months I kissed someone (possibly French kissing, I was slightly intoxicated) and also had sex with a man WHOM I AM CERTAIN IS HIV NEGATIVE (it was also protected by use of a condom!)-- I had sex with this man on February 3rd, two days after the "window period" of three months ended (I had the exposure I am concerned about on November 1, 2010). When I was talking to the nurses she said that I should get re-tested for HIV in another 3 months because they say that 6 months is the window period, but I have been told by someone else in a Planned Parenthood in NY that it is 3 months and also by my gynecologist that the window period is 3 months. Would my rapid antibody finger test have a different window period?
Also, a week after the possible exposure occurred I became ill with mononucleosis and tonsillitis, which was cured with the antibiotic Klavix. Would this delay seroconversion, possibly producing a false negative? Or am I most definitely HIV negative as I thought I was? Even though the nurse said that the window period is 6 months, she also said that "standards may vary, but we say 6 months" after I questioned her, the Clearview HIV info sheet said "If you are certain that you have not had any of the contacts that could transmit HIV in the 3 months before your HIV test, a Negative test result means you were not infected with HIV at the time of testing." Also, the Planned Parenthood sheet said that "If you have had any exposure to blood or body fluids in the 90 days (3 months) you could be in the "window period" before antibodies can be developed by your body. We recommend you be retested 3 months from your last exposure," which also made me question WHY the nurse said 6 months. Does this "blood or body fluids" mean exposure to ANY blood or body fluids, or just HIV-infected? Does French kissing apply to this?
I apologize for the length of this, but after I left the office I felt confident that I was HIV negative because despite what the nurse said about 6 months, both PP sheets said 3 months and I am certain my boyfriend is HIV negative, so I would not have had an exposure for OVER 3 months. However, after thinking about it some more all these questions popped up.
Am I definitively and conclusively negative?
I was just looking for some verification and someone to clear up my confusion. Over three months ago I engaged in possibly protected sex with a man from Ireland who I did not know and whose HIV status was/is unknown to me. The reason I say "possibly" is because I forced him to put on a condom, which I watched him do, but during the course of the sex (which was vaginal) I am not certain that the condom stayed on.
Exactly 102 days after the event (three months and ten days) I went to a Planned Parenthood in Frederick, MD, and was tested for HIV 1/2 using the Rapid HIV Antibody Test via a finger prick (I had to wait 15-20 minutes for results). It came up negative or nonreactive. I believe the test was Clearview Complete HIV 1/2 assay because the nurse gave me a little sheet with all the HIV info on it with that brand label. However, during the three months I kissed someone (possibly French kissing, I was slightly intoxicated) and also had sex with a man WHOM I AM CERTAIN IS HIV NEGATIVE (it was also protected by use of a condom!)-- I had sex with this man on February 3rd, two days after the "window period" of three months ended (I had the exposure I am concerned about on November 1, 2010). When I was talking to the nurses she said that I should get re-tested for HIV in another 3 months because they say that 6 months is the window period, but I have been told by someone else in a Planned Parenthood in NY that it is 3 months and also by my gynecologist that the window period is 3 months. Would my rapid antibody finger test have a different window period?
Also, a week after the possible exposure occurred I became ill with mononucleosis and tonsillitis, which was cured with the antibiotic Klavix. Would this delay seroconversion, possibly producing a false negative? Or am I most definitely HIV negative as I thought I was? Even though the nurse said that the window period is 6 months, she also said that "standards may vary, but we say 6 months" after I questioned her, the Clearview HIV info sheet said "If you are certain that you have not had any of the contacts that could transmit HIV in the 3 months before your HIV test, a Negative test result means you were not infected with HIV at the time of testing." Also, the Planned Parenthood sheet said that "If you have had any exposure to blood or body fluids in the 90 days (3 months) you could be in the "window period" before antibodies can be developed by your body. We recommend you be retested 3 months from your last exposure," which also made me question WHY the nurse said 6 months. Does this "blood or body fluids" mean exposure to ANY blood or body fluids, or just HIV-infected? Does French kissing apply to this?
I apologize for the length of this, but after I left the office I felt confident that I was HIV negative because despite what the nurse said about 6 months, both PP sheets said 3 months and I am certain my boyfriend is HIV negative, so I would not have had an exposure for OVER 3 months. However, after thinking about it some more all these questions popped up.
Am I definitively and conclusively negative?
You can get HIV from injection of infected blood directly to your bloodstreams / intimate transmission of vaginal fluid / semen. Blood to blood exposure requires direct contact of infected blood to your bloodstreams.
Would you please just answer my question? I just want information; then I will move on.
don't confuse yourself as you never had any risk from that incident. Kindly Move on
I haven't had another exposure, according to tomMulligan and to myself. After this possible exposure (on November 1) I kissed someone (in December) and then 2 days after the window period of 3 months (which was February 1st)) I had protected sex with my HIV-negative boyfriend. I was just confused on the wording in the quote I posted. Uninfected blood or body fluids exposure does not affect the test result, correct? (I was just curious if it affected seroconversion)
Sorry, just one more thing I'm uncertain about:
"If you have any exposure to blood or body fluids in the 90 days (3 months) you could be in the 'window period' before antibodies can be developed by your body." Does this refer to HIV INFECTED blood and body fluids or does ANY blood and body fluids have an affect on the test?
"If you have any exposure to blood or body fluids in the 90 days (3 months) you could be in the 'window period' before antibodies can be developed by your body." Does this refer to HIV INFECTED blood and body fluids or does ANY blood and body fluids have an affect on the test?
Sometimes Nurses and Doctors are not well knowledgeable in HIV. Always make sure to have condom on during intercourse and never share your needles.
Okay, thank you. I figured because the HIV info sheets said NOTHING about things that might affect the test results (i.e. antibiotics and all that jazz) and the nurse asked me nothing about such things that it was not an issue and that those tests are accurate, but I just wanted to be completely sure. I am glad I can put this to rest. Appreciate it.
No it doesn't affect at all. 3 months is conclusive. Your test is conclusive. You didn't expose yourself at risk from that Protected sex. If the guy didn't wear a condom, you will surely know it. If the condom fails, you will truly notice it. you dont need to take another test.
Well, all I am saying was because I do not know for sure if the incident was protected, do any of these factors (mono, antibiotics, tonsillitis) affect my seroconversion? Should I even bother testing again in 3 months because I was under the impression (and the sheets of paper I have from Planned Parenthood which SAY) that 3 months is the window period NOT 6. And I waited 102 days after the possible exposure to get tested.
Or am I most definitely HIV negative as I thought I was? Yes you are. Protected sex is equal to NO RISK. French kissing does not transmit HIV. You can get HIV from injection of infected blood directly to your bloodstreams / intimate transmission of vaginal fluid / semen.
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