The studies cited tell no HIV infection has been found about siero discordant HIV+ and - couples that practice only oral sex.
But my question is about how these studies have been made and what about the couples studied.
I mean that if the HIV+ persons of each couple were on therapy and meds,their viral load were surely very low or undetectable and so the study is not true and don't respect the reality where in a random oral sex act the HIV+ person perhaps don't know his status,he's not on meds and his viral load is high or very high and so he's potentially many time more infective than an HIV+ person on meds.
Kindly ask to someone a clarification because this point seems to me very important.
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