. I am curious as to whether there is truth to this theory? I do know that oral sex is very low risk, however, would performing oral with a canker sore (without swallowing or tasting any semen) be considered a risk for infection?
could you elaborate as to why some sites/advisors would point out that a canker sore is a suffice entry point to the blood stream, yet its pressence in the mouth upon performing oral sex doesn't put one at risk?