And for instance, if an HIV+ bites some food (and do that frequently and over an extended period of time) and gives it to an infant, is this considered also a risk?
Really thanks for your right away answer. You're helping me a lot.
The studies I'm familiar with about oral sex showed NO new infections among serodiscordant couples (one negative, one infected) when the pairs have engaged in only oral sex.
The other study is not possible. HIV is a human condition only, it cannot be transferred to animals from humans, or vice versa.
Thanks a lot for your quick answer.
Plz forgive my poor English, but I just have another question by the way.
I've heared of two hiv-exposure experiments.
The first is an experiment done and reported in the St.Fransisco, 2001. They investigated 102 newly infected gays and found that 8% might got that during an unprotected oral sex. Thus they draw a conclusion that oral sex can transmit hiv.
Another is an inhumane one, in which researchers poured hiv+ blood directly on a monkey's bleeding wound, but the later test showed the monkey was not infected.
Are the two experiments above true? Or just someone's kidding?
And, oral sex is not a risk.
Luckily, this is not a common practice anyway, nor an accepted one. Hence, why baby food is already pureed.
Bottom line, this would NOT pose a risk to adults.