Question about objective data

Ref 2 previous posts regarding mutual masturbation with csw

Thank you Dr Hook (and Dr Handsfield) for adding more clarity and confidence. I suppose my anxiety stems from the variability of information on the web. Although the indication of risk associated with my activities are generally consistent, ie very low, I do get thrown off by other data; something that perhaps you can clarify.
For example, in my case, I have seen gov't publications on the prevalence of HIV+ in my country and when I segregate the gender, non IDU users, filter by province etc, I still end up with numbers of infected females in the several hundreds. I assume most of these are csw, so hence the fear. It is no longer a thought of "most women are hiv-" This insills a different thought and suddenly I perceive my risk to be greater.
So my final question before I leave this to rest is whether you can contextualize the data a bit. What I mean is, how do you as a doctor, interpret all that information as provided say by CDC and convert it into the opinions you provide here, because there is a measurable difference in risk or should I say "fear" instilled by gov't or other sites? Is this from your personal clinical experience, is it from research, is it from cited data....or all of the above?
I believe and trust strong objective evidence, and I am hoping you can add some context in this vane. Ultimately I do understand that a test will provide the strongest data, but for example, I would not seek a H1N1 test if I happened to be in an airplane with coughing passengers during that epidemic. I would use other factors to leverage my concern of contraction. Hope this question makes sense :)
Most grateful for your contributions.

[Edward W Hook, MD]

Not sure why a new post was started.   See answer just posted to the same question as part of your earlier thread.  EWH