Dear Doctor,
firstFirst progesterone mc10
First progesterone mc5
First-progesterone vgs 100
First-progesterone vgs 200
First-progesterone vgs 25
First-progesterone vgs 400
First-progesterone vgs 50
First-testosterone
First-testosterone mc I make exsuses myself if my english is no good, I’m italian.
I admire a lot the answers you give in this forum, that I have read with great interest, because of I had a “low risk exposure”:
brokenBroken bone
Broken or knocked out tooth condomCondoms
Female condoms (in a very strange way, because after a brief insertive
vaginalAnterior vaginal wall repair
Causes of vaginal itching
Culture - endocervix
Hydrocele
Hysterectomy
Transvaginal ultrasound
Vaginal bleeding between periods
Vaginal bleeding during pregnancy
Vaginal bleeding in pregnancy
Vaginal cysts
Vaginal discharge, less then 1 minute, with an escort, I have noticed that
condomCondoms
Female condoms was non very adherent, and sperm was not in the upper part of it, even the
penisCancer - penis
Curvature of the penis
Penis care (uncircumcised)
Penis pain was enterely covered; then, I filled it up with water, and appeared a little hole, about 5 cm from the upper size; now, I don’t know what has really happened, but I worry that the upper part of penis has worked out of condom, even if there wasn’t a obvious and noisy breach, like I often hear about condom breaking).
Okay, I know that you are against HIV test in these cases: “you apparently have seen my comments about 1 in 2000 being the average risk for female to male transmission through vaginal sex. And you also have seen my comments about the low overall HIV risk in non-drug using heterosexual men and women. But those are average figures. I have no way of knowing how well they apply to any particular case. But I would not have recommended HIV testing at all, if you don't have other risks” (9.11.2006).
But I have also read some affirmations that make me doubtful.
In fact, you always talk of 1/2000 average, but you also said: “In my STD clinic, which has tested thousands of persons for HIV every year, we have never diagnosed HIV in a heterosexual male after a single episode of high risk vaginal sex. Not once” (9.4.2006)
This is an affirmation that would remove every doubt!
But you even say: “In my STD clinic, testing thousands of persons per year for 20 years, we have seen only 1 or 2 heterosexual men who acquired HIV by vaginal sex” (8.30.2006) (this second affirmation is lightly different by first: can you explain that? Maybe here you are talking about more than a single episode?).
Now, don’t you think that your personal experience imposes to modify those averages?
Where is the truth?
What must I think?
What does it means 1/2000 averages, and why you remember always that, if your personal experience for hetero acquiring HIV is very, very different and seems to conclude for a very less probability than 1/2000 (in certain cases, near to 0% probability)?
If we talk about averages, it means that, sooner or later, one person will take the virus, maybe the first time he have a contact, even low risk!
Is very different to say “non risk at those conditions (only one too brief contact, etc)”, or “one about 2.000” (that “one” could be me, and soon!).
At last, what do you think about may personal experience?
Here in Italy, all doctors in forums about HIV say: “you have a low risk, but the only way to know exactly is making test in 3 months”: it seems to me like saying: “you have low risk to have brain cancer, but the only way to know is to make a T.A.C.”.
What do you think: I need testing, or I “have a greater chance of harming you, like being hit by lightning” (9.28.2006)?
My doctor said: “to catch HIV with vaginal insertion, you need many long relationship with a HIV+ partner; there are 0% average, you don’t need test”: is he wrong or right?
Thanks a lot.
To quote the comment of o_g: here we are talking about HIV, not herpes, and i'm very happy to know that you didn't take HIV from that contact.