It seems alot of people are asking about statistics. Dunno how helpful they really are, but according to the Oxford handbook of Genitourinary medicine, HIV, and AIDS, the odds are as follows following a single exposure:
Anal receptive: .1-3%
anal insertive: .06%
vaginal receptive: .1-.2%
vag. insertive: .03-.09%
receptive fellatio: estimated around .04%
cunnilingus and insertive fellatio: no data, but estimated half the receptive fellatio rate.
A study which is soon to be published in the Lancet, a respectable medical journal, says that these estimates are only applicable for stable serodiscordant couples, with no concurrent std's or genital lesions and a low viral load in affected partner, and other factors. Here is the paper, I found it much more plausible than the above estimates:
http://www.aidsmap.com/en/news/E1249D29-0DDE-4CFF-9CC7-16B3FADB3E59.asp
I'm not sure if he was infected or not. I did ask him about wether or not he knows his sexual status but he took it as an offence and haven't hurd drom him since :/ thank you for your response.
You can test 3 months post exposure and your test will be conclusive.
did he have hiv?
go body check but your probably okay
did u have vagina secretion?