Over two years ago I had unprotected sex with a woman while I was out of the country. I never had any symptoms following this encounter and, being away from home, neglected to get tested for STDs. I since had not given this encounter much thought, which I confess was irresponsible of me.
I am prone to intense anxiety at times and worked myself into a nervous frenzy ~6 months ago about something about which I will not go into detail, and experienced hair shedding that I assumed was caused by this stress. I was also feeling generally run down and fatigued. I went to a doctor about the hair loss and he did blood work that he said was all normal. At this point I was not thinking about HIV or about the encounter at all and din't ask to be tested for STDs during my visit.
I am still experiencing some hair shedding after 6 months but it seems to be improving gradually. However, I recently saw a program about HIV where they discussed the 'acute infection' and remembered that I did get sick two weeks after the aforementioned sexual encounter. Naturally that scared me and I began to research HIV and saw that telogen effluvium (the hair loss I am experiencing) can be a symptom of HIV. I wrote to the woman (very abashedly) and asked her if she had been tested for STDs. She said she had a month before and was clean, but this was a one night stand with a foreign woman who I do not know or trust.
My question is, would the doctor, given my symptoms likely have tested for HIV when he did my blood work? I have tried getting in touch with the hospital repeatedly the past several days and have heard no response from them. I have to wait one week until I can get tested at a local clinic.
I would greatly value any insight into my situation.
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