Hello and thanks for reading.
I was recently in Germany and I met a 36 year old (white) British woman at a nightclub. We ended up going home together for a night cap. She had condoms readily available (not sure if i should be even more concerned because of this) and we proceeded to use one. However, I was unable to remain hard so she suggested that we continue without one. She asked me if I had anything and I said no, and I asked her the same question; she said no. We had intercourse about 3 or 4 times (5-6 mins max each time) and I did not ejaculate inside of her. She also did not have any visible sores on her genitalia, although it was dark. Prior to this encounter, my std test results were negative across the board.
To my knowledge, she is a manger at a TV company (verified) and does not inject drugs of any sort. I normally never do this but we were both heavily intoxicated at the time. I deeply regret the situation and I wish it never happened. It's been two weeks since my exposure and I took a blood test today.
My question is, what do you think the risk of a female to male transmission of an std like HIV would be in the scenario described above?
Thanks again-