and felt good during that period. It lasted 2 days and was gone. I have never had swollen gland ever. This seems strange to me even though I am trying to rationalize it.
Am I correct that 4 weeks seems a little long for symptoms?
No fever is a key of not being infected?
Swollen glands would not be localized but general throughout the body in ARS?
And of course oral very low risk period?