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INR...What do the Numbers mean?

by Peanut82, Aug 05, 2008 02:36AM
I don't understand Warfrin. If the INR is... lets say 1.2 and your on 2mg of Coumadin the Dr will increase it to.. let say 5mg.  I thought the lower the number, the thinner the blood. Do I have this Backwords?
How can the Dr. determin if you need Warfrin or not?...if you test postive for clotting factors.
What is normal range for someone who is not on Coumadin?
I don't understand the INR.
Member Comments (4)

by Brooke_38, Aug 05, 2008 07:32AM
To: Peanut82
Hello-

I'll try to explain as simply as I can:

An individual whose blood clots normally and who is not on anticoagulation should have an INR of approximately 1. The higher your INR is, the longer it takes your blood to clot.  

As the INR increases above a given level, the risk of bleeding and bleeding-related events increases. On the other hand, as the INR decreases below a given level, the risk of clotting events increases.

The ideal target INR range will vary from person to person depending on a variety of factors such as the reason for taking anticoagulants, other medical conditions, and a number of other issues. Your Dr will determine the appropriate INR range for you. The most common INR target range for someone on warfarin is somewhere between 2.0 and 4.0. INRs of 5 or more typically are avoided because the risk of bleeding increases significantly at INRs above 5.

by Peanut82, Aug 06, 2008 03:40AM
To: Brooke_38
Thank you.. that helps.
But I do have some more questions.
So someone that is not on an anticoagulant, their INR would be approximately 1. Then why is it consider a risk factor for clots , strokes  for some one who is on warfrin when their INR is 1.2 for example and meanwhile someone who doesn't take warfrin has an INR of 1?
Also lets say you test postitive for clotting factors but your Dr. does not put you on a anticoagulant. Why? if you test positive for clotting factors isn't that why you would be put on an anticoagulant?

by Brooke_38, Aug 06, 2008 01:04PM
To: Peanut82
1.So someone that is not on an anticoagulant, their INR would be approximately 1. Then why is it consider a risk factor for clots?

Warfarin (Coumadin) is prescribed to people with an increased tendency for thrombosis or as secondary prophylaxis (prevention of further episodes) in those individuals that have already formed a blood clot (thrombus). Warfarin treatment can help prevent formation of future blood clots and help reduce the risk of embolism (migration of a thrombus to a spot where it blocks blood supply to a vital organ). Common clinical indications for warfarin use are atrial fibrillation, the presence of artificial heart valves, deep venous thrombosis, pulmonary embolism and occasionally after myocardial infarction.

I'm not sure if I understand the last part of your question. Doctors can determine the use of this medication by your risk factors for developing clots. They will also be able to determing the appropriate dose by closely monitoring your INR levels. The lower the number the thicker the blood. So therapeutic ranges for people receiving anticoagualnt therepy is between 2.0-4

Why are you taking Coumadin?

by Peanut82, Aug 12, 2008 11:21PM
To: brook_38
I'm not on Coumadin. I'm an RPN and I'm having troubles understanding the difference between INRs and those who test positive for clotting factors but are not percribed to take an anticoagulant.
I also don't understand that a person who is not on warffrin has an INR of 1, yet the therepy rang for someone on Warffrin is 2.0 - 4. So my question is, why are those who are not on an anticoagulant has an INR of 1, but when someone who is on coumadin has an INR of 1.2 is at risk of bleeding out, but yet someone who is not on coumadin has an INR of 1?
Am I confussing you?
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