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INR...What do the Numbers mean?
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INR...What do the Numbers mean?

I don't understand Warfrin. If the INR is... lets say 1.2 and your on 2mg of Coumadin the Dr will increase it to.. let say 5mg.  I thought the lower the number, the thinner the blood. Do I have this Backwords?
How can the Dr. determin if you need Warfrin or not?...if you test postive for clotting factors.
What is normal range for someone who is not on Coumadin?
I don't understand the INR.
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251395_tn?1395961265
Hello-

I'll try to explain as simply as I can:

An individual whose blood clots normally and who is not on anticoagulation should have an INR of approximately 1. The higher your INR is, the longer it takes your blood to clot.  

As the INR increases above a given level, the risk of bleeding and bleeding-related events increases. On the other hand, as the INR decreases below a given level, the risk of clotting events increases.

The ideal target INR range will vary from person to person depending on a variety of factors such as the reason for taking anticoagulants, other medical conditions, and a number of other issues. Your Dr will determine the appropriate INR range for you. The most common INR target range for someone on warfarin is somewhere between 2.0 and 4.0. INRs of 5 or more typically are avoided because the risk of bleeding increases significantly at INRs above 5.
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Avatar_f_tn
Thank you.. that helps.
But I do have some more questions.
So someone that is not on an anticoagulant, their INR would be approximately 1. Then why is it consider a risk factor for clots , strokes  for some one who is on warfrin when their INR is 1.2 for example and meanwhile someone who doesn't take warfrin has an INR of 1?
Also lets say you test postitive for clotting factors but your Dr. does not put you on a anticoagulant. Why? if you test positive for clotting factors isn't that why you would be put on an anticoagulant?
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251395_tn?1395961265
1.So someone that is not on an anticoagulant, their INR would be approximately 1. Then why is it consider a risk factor for clots?

Warfarin (Coumadin) is prescribed to people with an increased tendency for thrombosis or as secondary prophylaxis (prevention of further episodes) in those individuals that have already formed a blood clot (thrombus). Warfarin treatment can help prevent formation of future blood clots and help reduce the risk of embolism (migration of a thrombus to a spot where it blocks blood supply to a vital organ). Common clinical indications for warfarin use are atrial fibrillation, the presence of artificial heart valves, deep venous thrombosis, pulmonary embolism and occasionally after myocardial infarction.

I'm not sure if I understand the last part of your question. Doctors can determine the use of this medication by your risk factors for developing clots. They will also be able to determing the appropriate dose by closely monitoring your INR levels. The lower the number the thicker the blood. So therapeutic ranges for people receiving anticoagualnt therepy is between 2.0-4

Why are you taking Coumadin?
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Avatar_f_tn
I'm not on Coumadin. I'm an RPN and I'm having troubles understanding the difference between INRs and those who test positive for clotting factors but are not percribed to take an anticoagulant.
I also don't understand that a person who is not on warffrin has an INR of 1, yet the therepy rang for someone on Warffrin is 2.0 - 4. So my question is, why are those who are not on an anticoagulant has an INR of 1, but when someone who is on coumadin has an INR of 1.2 is at risk of bleeding out, but yet someone who is not on coumadin has an INR of 1?
Am I confussing you?
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Avatar_f_tn
My mother had a pulmonary embolism last week and has been discharged from hospital.  She had blood taken today as she is on warfarin 4mg, her INR was 1:2.  Is she at risk?  
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574118_tn?1305138884
my father doesn't have atrial febrilation or any specific heart disease. Except that he did have sometime ago an angiography because of suspicious of schemia (not sure of pronunciation) also a type-A personality , which proved that there nothing to worry about and the schemia is due to bridge on the LAD artery (born like this).  however his doctor put him for prevention on concor-cor 2.5 (although his blood pressure is like the book 120/80 perhaps because he suffers from a little arythmia) and aspirin 50mg. He has been living like this for years. But because he heard of omega3 and their drastic advantage in preventing all sort of diseases from arthritis to cancer, etc...etc...etc... a few years ago he takes them too 1-3g/daily.
Life is OK for 6 years until he read accidentally that combining the two is dangerous as both are anticoagulants. He panicked although no bruises , still he doesn't know what to do. Some say take fish oil in the morning and the aspirin at night. some say don't take either and exercise with low fat diet, some take only 30mg aspirin. etc...
what do you suggest please
he is 67 years old, energetic lately he measured his INR and found it 1. the clinical pathologist told him it's normal. yet it says on sites it should be between 2-3 for people who take anticoagulants. does he take anticoagulant sort of or not
thanks
ezz
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976897_tn?1379171202
Everyone should always check with their Doctor before taking any supplements, whether vitamins, minerals or omega. One study suggested that Omega had it's benefits doubled by Aspirin but still a Doctor should be involved.
It isn't surprising about the INR of 1 with Aspirin. There are around 30 processes involved in clotting, and if any is not working efficiently, that person will clot slower. If any are over efficient, then they will clot faster. The number 1 refers to a person who has healthy clotting processes, so it's used as a baseline. Your Father probably has over efficient clotting processes, which means he will be lower than 1 without the aspirin. The Aspirin has probably just boosted him to 1. He would be better on aspirin if this is the case or he will likely clot too easily. If his INR is 1 and he is on omega and aspirin, your Doctor is likely to let him continue with both.
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Avatar_m_tn
My mom is taking Warfarin for blood clots.  She was taking 3 mg and INR tested at 2.4 - doc said that was perfect.  Then she got bronchitus (bronchitis) and UTI and was in the hospital/rehab for 2 1/2 weeks.  After she got out, Dr put her back on 3 mg, but she tested 1. So doc upped it to 4 1/2 mg for 2 weeks - she is still at 1.1.  He's not happy about upping dosage to 6, but wants to get her INR back to 2.5.  He asked me what is different now than before - meds, supplements, diet - only thing different is she was taking flax seed oil caps as well as Omega 3 caps; now just Omega 3.  Should I start her back on the Flax Seed Oil?  Doc didn't know....
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976897_tn?1379171202
Flax seed oil does indeed affect platelet ability to clot, so stopping this would have increased your Mums clotting ability. If you start her back on the flax seed oil, her INR will very likely increase, but maybe too much with the higher dosage of Warfarin.
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Avatar_f_tn
A person on warfarin with an inr of 1.2 is not at risk of bleeding out. They are at risk for a clot. People not on warfarin normal range of about 1 because they don't have a bleeding or clotting disorder, thus 1 is normal.

I take 10 MG a day everyday and my inr was 2.2 just today. It all depends o. The reason behind taking it.
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