YES! I was too busy being the grammar police that I didn't see he said LAD, it is definitely CX!
My OM1 or Obtuse Marginal is in the Left Circumflex. My Diagonals are in my Left anterior descending. I recommend that the OM1 is stented if possible because it is known to give some pretty nasty angina symptoms if it progresses much more. Also, the bottom of the left circumflex is good at supplying collateral feeds if necessary to other vessels, but will not be able to do so if it becomes blocked.
"Left" and "Descending" ...but yes, that is what OM 1 is, one of the "collateral circulatory vessels"
om1 is the first oblique marginal artery off the laft anterior decending artery it is one of the colaterial cirulatory vessils of the left ventricle if all others are clear surgical ie. cabg is not neccary, stenting and angioplasty may be.
OMI is sometimes noted in a medical report to mean "Old Myocardia Infarction" (MI) which is a heart attack. So I am assuming OM 1 to be OMI. An 85% vessel blockage can be treated with angioplasty and stent, CABG (bypass), or medication.
What therapy option depends on symptoms, general health, age (if over 80), etc. Some patients do well with medication (dilate vessels), a patient may not tolerate medication and has continued chest pain, etc., then a stent implant would be appropriate; the occlusion may be too long, location not amenable to stent, an emergency etc., then the option would be CABG