My 79 yr old father had a stent placed in 2003 for a 90% LAD occlusion, he developed AFib 2 years later and has been poorly rate controlled since that time. He has been cardioverted once and had his med dosages toyed with. He is very practical and strong willed, was told he had high cholesterol 20 years ago and cut out cheese and butter just like that and has maintained healthy eating habits, no smoking, and is very active..works out at the Y 3x a week and has a 6 pack, ie he is fit!! Meds are coumadin, metoprolol, atorvastin and ASA. Today he had a significant TIA, symptoms took 6+ hours to resolve (right facial droop, slurred speech, word salad and right hand"clumsiness") was treated in ED with LMWH and increase in coumadin dose (INR 1.6). His cardiologist had previously stated he was a poor risk for ablation and would insert a pacemaker instead, although he also has let him remain in AFib for 2 + years! I'm an ER nurse and don't understand the rationale behind that and would like to know which procedure would be more appropriate or if there are any other options. Thank you Ann C.