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Good day to all of you. I have found this statemenent ''HBsAg will be detected in an infected person’s blood an average of 4 weeks (range: 1–9 weeks) after exposure to the virus''..on the official cdc site.May I ask,does this mean that if someone is hbsag negative after 9 weeks he is defenately not curentely infected with hbv virus?
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9 weeks after what? Exposure to hbv? How would he know? If he tested HBsAg negative, then at the time of testing he is not infected.
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Well...everybody say that after the infection the body takes time to produce antibodies or antigens,so there is a window period the cdc have that statement...my question is...if this statement means that when someone is hbsag negative 9 weeks after his last possible exposure is defenitive negative.
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I may be splitting hair here. My point is how can he be sure that he was infected?
If you were infected, then the infection may be acute (lasting at most 1 year), or chronic (last for a very long time). CDC's statement refers to the case of infection.
How can you be sure that it was a possible infection but not an actual infection? I don't know, may be test again after a few months.
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I believe that the actual meaning of a test is to determine if you are infected or not. CDC states that when a person is infected the his body will produce the hbsag antigen in a range of 1-9 weeks after the infection.That means,if I am right,that you can exclude acute hbv if after 9 weeks you are hbsag negative.My question is...am I understanding that statement of 1-9 weeks right? or this means something else? In simple words...is the window period for hbsag testing 9 weeks or it is not?
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I don't know, I guess to be sure, you test again after a few weeks or months, then you can exclude infection.
To exclude acute infection, you have to wait after 1 year to be sure.
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ok..i see...thank you for your help then.Take care!
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