About four months ago, my boyfriend gave me HSV-1 orally; he had a cold sore, I got a cold sore. In the same week, he performed oral sex on me as well. I saw my doctor about the cold sore, she prescribed 500mg Valtrex daily and we discussed the possibility of genital infection and agreed that it would be dealt with should it occur. Now, four months later, there's been no genital infection. As I write, my last daily dose of Valtrex was taken yesterday and due to a small error, I won't be able to get a refill for a few more days.
I ask because of general nervousness: would the fact that I have been taking Valtrex as suppressive therapy since my initial oral infection also serve to suppress any genital infection? I've had the start of a few oral outbreaks due to minor infections/stress, but those have been squashed through increased dosage and liberal application of Abreva.
abreva actually barely got fda approval to say that it healed cold sores faster. not worth paying all that money for that teeny tube :( It only heals cold sores less than a day sooner than using a placebo so it's not a lot of bang for your buck.
is it likely you have hsv1 genitally too and just didn't show symptoms? not likely. odds are you would've had a very obvious genital ob if you had. Even starting valtrex a few days into things wasn't likely to mask a primary genital hsv1 infection ( assuming you contracted hsv1 both orally and genitally at the same time ). I assume this was your first cold sore?
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