I just have a follow up question to a response I read by Dr. Hannsfield to another member. In his reply, he states in pertinent part
"The principle that, once infected, one is highly resistant (probably immune) to a new infection or to auto-inoculation of a new body part is the same for any and all body parts, regardless of the site of the initial infection. It is conceivable you acquired oral HSV-1 at the same time you were exposed genitally. (But that's unlikely if you didn't have oral symptoms.) If that didn't happen, then most likely you will never have oral herpes, either by auto-inoculation of your genital infection or from another person"..
I am a little confused by this after I apply this to my own situation. I understand every case is different so perhaps someone can help me understand this reasoning. My gf contracted HSV-1 from me genitally. I do not know where in my body I contracted it through as I have never had any outbreaks of which I am aware of. I have never had any oral blisters. Is it safe to say I contracted it genitally as well and had something minimal and undetected that she picked up off of me?
The Doctor goes on to say the following
"In other words, I disagree with your "other source" -- assuming you are quoting it accurately. To my knowledge, the site predilection of the two HSV types has more to do with frequency of recurrence and asymptomatic shedding, not to susceptibility in event of exposure. For these reasons, you can expect your infection to remain genitally localized, most likely with few if any recurrent outbreaks and little risk for sexual transmission".
As I understand this, If I were to assume that I contracted HSV-1 genitally, I should not expect any outbreaks of the genital HSV-1 I already have, around in my mouth, but can still contract HSV-1 orally if ever exposed to it ?
I'm confused by this as well...I have had HSV1 orally for years, since a child...but I have just recently suffered an initial genital outbreak followed by a second genital outbreak nearly 2 months later, non ulcerated I might add...just discharge and swelling...I was being treated for BV and yeast and I figured the underlying cause was HSV1 genitally b/c I developed systemic outbreak symptoms. (It had to be that or shingles) I have had all major bloodwork done several times and the only thing coming back is HSV1...I finally insisted on an antiviral drug which has greatly improved my situation. My question is this...have I always had HSV1 in both places? and maybe genitally been asymptomatic and possibly shedding? Did I pass this unknowingly genitally to my husband during performing oral (I never perform if symptoms are present but research says you can shed w/o symptoms) and then he give it to me genitally.
If you can shed w/o symptoms you could have passed it during performing oral, if you do that (are you sure you've never had a fever blister or cold sore? sometimes they can be very infrequent.) and if you think you've passed it to her genitally you may just be asymptomatic and shedding there as well....my husband has not had visual symptoms of HSV1 genitally but I do think he may have it b/c he has complained of pain/stinging after sex...now did he give it to me or me to him??? I do not know.
My thing is this...you can have HSV1 and be asymptomatic and you can shed w/o symptoms so there is really no way of knowing when transmission may transpire...and this is my OPINION, I am not a professional...just someone living with this crap and trying to make since of it too
Thanks...I made the final assumption myself. I have had HSV1 as long as I can remember (since childhood) orally...I had a severe oral outbreak when I had my first child. I have NEVER had a vaginal outbreak. A few months back I had relations with someone other than my husband where I recieved oral (I haven't had oral in over 12 years). As I was leaving the encounter I noticed what appeared to be a fever blister in the trim of his goatee near his chin. About 2-3 weeks later I had given myself a quick tops-n-tails sink bath before dashing to work and the cleanser contained 2% Salicyc Acid...I burned for nearly a week, and it dried me out really bad...caused discharge etc....went to the doctor for complete testing and they were saying vaginitis, BV, etc....well the symptoms wouldn't really clear up or I finished the meds and they would immediately come back...my vagina got really swollen and even more discharge...long story short I went to my GYN twice and to my family doctor, both testing me for numerous STD's, etc....everything would come back negative except the HSV1 and none of the meds were really clearing up all of my symptoms. Well, when my vagina started to swell really bad I developed a sharp pain in my spine then a burning sensation that wrapped around my chest and went up my neck and head (I think I had a slight case of encephalitis) but since the doctors didn't seem to think my vaginal issues were HSV, I was treated with a Z-pack for upper respiratory by my family doc as well as continued to take the Metrodiazonale...which didn't seem to really help much either. Then the swelling finally started to subside in my vagina releasing plenty of discharge with it...went back, they were still saying BV and yeast....finally my symptoms cleared pretty good and my husband and I had sex...my vagina intensely itched followed by discharge (and it was localized in the area that I had recieved the oral) and my husband complained of stinging after sex...I put myself back on the Metrodiazonale...still no visible blisters, but I noticed a tiny bump so I decided to go back to the GYN. He painted the tiny bump with acid...actually there were two...one came off emty, the other came off with a pus like filling....here's the kicker...AFTER he painted the spots, my back/spine started aching and the heat sensation went through my body again...body achy, tired, profuse night sweats....he did test me for HIV again...I have been being tested every several months as a precaution and it was negative and it has been atleast 4 months since I've been outside of my marriage. Doctors say it didn't look like HSV and didn't want to believe that I was having a neurologic systemic outbreak with it...so I suggested shingles and they didn't want to believe that either (I had developed a few small blisters between my breasts that quickly went away). Finally I asked for the antiviral medication and it took about 3 days to really feel a difference but now I am almost back to normal...so I KNOW that it was the HSV1 or shingles. I went for a re-check Friday and was thoroughly disgusted...the doctor says there was no evidence of HSV in my vaginal area and the other symptoms were not related..etc. etc. etc....but I have read differently on the CDC websites and I know that the antiviral meds did help. But my last question to him Friday was this...can I have HSV1 genitally w/o lesions? I have a friend that has HSV (not sure what type) but did not have ANY symptoms except for discharge.....and he said YES. I have been dealing with pain, itching, irritation, and plenty of discharge for almost 4 months...which according to the CDC website is about how long an initial vaginal HSV1 outbreak can or normally takes...and althought the Flagyl, Metrodiazonale, and Boric Acid was helping some of my symptoms they weren't getting to the route of the problem...which was the HSV1, when I started the Aclivoir...my discharge finally stopped.
I think I initially injured myself with the cleanser and the injury and stress triggered the outbreak. Now how long have I had the HSV1 vaginally, not sure...but like I said most of the worst symptoms corresponded with the precise location of the oral I had received and ALL of my symptoms were inside vaginally...not anywhere on the folds of the lips or outside of the vagina...so I say anything is possible.
it's most helpful if you just keep asking questions in your original post. It saves me a lot of time of having to go back and read through your prior posts to review your "story".
First off - did your gf EVER get a lesion culture for herpes done and results back? Best I can see from your other posts is that she only ever had a visual exam for herpes done? Did she get her blood test results back from her own testing? I'm just unsure what testing was + other than your own hsv1 igg.
Most adults have hsv1 orally. Only 20-40% of them ever get obvious cold sores to know it. Odds are your hsv1 is oral.
I apologize. I did not realize I could post a follow up to an older(original) post.
Well, I have never had a culture done because I have never had/detected any lesions that would make me run to a doctor. My GF did have one done, however, on the lesions that resulted from her first outbreak.
Her doc's were originally entertaining the idea of BV or YI. She was subsequently blood tested for every detectable STD. Only HSV-1 came back positive in blood and igg.
My igg and blood test also came back positive for HSV-1.
So if my HSV-1 is oral, how can she have contracted it genitally? And again, does this mean that I can contract HSV-1 again genitally as well thereby having 2 points of infection? Also, can I break out of my presumably oral HSV-1 anywhere else?
@Superthriftmom: Just to add to your post. I also went through the same ordeal w/ my doctor. It seems Doctors are very hesitant to LISTEN to their patients. When I initially went to mine, I asked specifically for igg for HSV-1 & 2. He repeatedly and adamantly stated it was not necessary. I requested it anyways and he gave me the blood work order. Sitting at the clinic, I verified with the nurse what he had ordered. He did not put in the igg request. I called him from the lobby of the clinic and demanded he put it in. Still he was hesitant. Why would a doctor, not performing the test himself, and definitely not paying for it, outright refuse? This was my experience with 2 previous doctors. I would go in requesting something and they just brushed me off indifferently saying; "don't worry about it, you're ok". ridiculous.
your gf being + for hsv1 at the time of her infection means either it wasn't a newly acquired hsv1 genital infection for her or it wasn't herpes going on in the first place and she has hsv1 orally like 60% of the rest of us do.
Maybe I'm over thinking this but I do not understand your answer.
You say that maybe it was not herpes going on in the first place. I stated earlier they did a culture exam and a blood test. Both results came back for HSV-1.
So again, my question is; If a person with HSV-1can have a break out at a site other than the original point of infection?
My second question is; If a person that contracted HSV-1 (whether orally or genitally) can contract it again, from another person, at a different spot?
Meaning, if I have HSV-1 oral, can I contract HSV-1 genitally from another person. (or vice versa)
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