HERPES 1 - DORMANCT

[YIQUI]

hOW PROBABLE IS IT THAT HERPES 1 WOULD BE DORMANT WITHOUT ANY SYMPTOMS FOR OVER 30 YEARS AND WITHOUT WARNING BECOME ACTIVE.  

2 YEARS AGO MY WIFE OF 30+ YEARS DEVELOPED AN INFECTION, IN HER GENITAL AREA WHICH TURNED OUT TO BE HERPES 1.  tESTS SHOWED THAT HER IMUNE SYSTEM HAD NOT YET DEVELOPED ANTIBODIES, PROVING THAT IT WAS HER FIRST EXPOSURE TO THE VIRUS.   SHE ASSERTS THAT SHE HAS NEVER BEEN UNFAITHFUL IN OUR 30 YEARS OF MARRIADE.

ION THE OTHER HAND, MY TEST WAS POSITIVE FOR HERPES 1.  HOWEVER, I TOO HAVE BEEN ABSOLUTELY MONOGAMOUS.  AND, MY ONLY OTHER SEXUAL ENCOUNTER WITH SOMEONE OTHER THAN MY WIFE WAS 5 YEAR BEFORE I MARRIED MY WIFE.  .

I HAVE ACCEPTED RESPONSIBILITY, ALTHOUGH I FIND IT UNUSUAL THAT I HAVE NEVER HAD ANY SYMPTOMS OF STD.  NOT EVEN RECENTLY WHEN MY WIFE BECAME INFECTED.  IN 30"YEARS OF MARRIAGE WE HAVE HAD UNPROTECTEC SEX WITH EACH OTHER OVER 3000 TIMES AND NOT EVEN A HINT.  WHY NOW.?  HOW LIKELY IS IT?  COULD IT BE ANOTHER EXPLANATION?

[YIQUI]

Thanks for the benefit of your experience.  While I wish it had not happned, I am certainly glad that I was the source.

Yiqui

[petal130]

Almost certainly you have oral HSV1 (as does about 60% of the adult population), and you transmitted your oral HSV1 to her genitals via oral sex. About 30% of all new genital herpes infections are just from that scenario (I can vouch for it to - my partner transmitted his oral herpes to me this way, and I now have genital HSV1).