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2) I understand that it is difficult to transmit the disease without having an outbreak, but there are periods of asymptomatic shedding; if I used a condom, what is the likelihood that there could be transmission.
3) I've also heard that there is a lower chance of transmitting HSV-1 from Genitals to genitals. Is this so and if so by a significant amount?
If you already have HSV1 Orally it's unlikely that you would then get it Genitally although not impossible just unlikely, if she has Oral HSV1 it is entirely possible for her to transmit it to your Genitals it is all a matter of what route the virus takes initially,some people have Genital HSV1 as well as having it Orally but not too many I would imagine, if you used a condom during the time of no outbreak your risk of transmission is low, truthfully i don't know the stats on Genital to Genital transmission of HSV1 although I would think there wouldn't be any difference Herpes will transmit if and when the conditions are correct for it to do so and lets face it Oral HSV1 transmits very easily even from a simple friendly kiss ......
Daisy