I had sex with a new partner for the first time on February 5, 2012. Shortly thereafter I found by "chance" (in other words... I was snooping) a prescription for ACYCLOVIR in his name. This prompted me to request an HSV2 blood test although I had no visible symptoms, lesions, or blisters.
I provided a blood sample on 3/2/12 and my blood test came back with the following result:
HSV2 Ab, IgG 3.40 Positive
What strikes me as odd is that the nurse who informed me of my results stated that this was not a "recent" exposure and that my new partner would not have been the person who transmitted this to me.
Is it just coincidental that I have never experienced any "typical" herpes symptoms, I slept with a man who has an Acyclovir prescription, and then I test positive for HSV2 shortly thereafter but it's supposedly an older infection? Should I be retested?
Also, is there any other reason he would be taking Acyclovir? I asked him if he has been tested for herpes and if he is knowledgeable about any previous exposure or a current infection but he stated that he has never experienced any symptoms and that he is not aware of having herpes. I did not specifically ask what the Acyclovir was for....yet.
well, if you had the blood test right after your encounter, odds are this is not a recent infection for you. that's because the igg blood test takes up to 3-4 months to become positive. it would be rare for someone to test positive, say, a week after the encounter. make sense?
your results is still considered a low positive (below 3.5), so it would be best to confirm it since there are some issues with low positives being false-positives.
the confirmatory test is the western blot and you should wait at least 16 weeks since last exposure to take it. they can order it through quest labs.
if you happen to spot any symptoms down there, be seen by a doctor and ask for a swab of it - this way you can get a prompt answer.
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