. She has had herpes for 10 years and does not know if it is HSV1 or HSV2. She has only ever had lesions on her buttock -- never oral or in the vaginal
area. She has not had an outbreak in more than two years. She is not currently on suppressive therapy. I am seeking information about the relative risks of her performing oral sex
on her when she is not having an outbreak. She would likely start suppressive therapy before we did this, but I am curious about risks either way. Thanks for your help — most information I have found is mostly about men and women, and also just states that there is not "no" risk. I am really looking for information to help me weigh the relative risks. Thanks again.
you and your partner need to seek out type specific herpes igg blood tests to see who has what. You can't make educated decisions about what precautions to take until you know who has what. Once you know each others status, I can help you much more accurately with what precautions to take :)
herpes ob's on the buttocks is still genital herpes. it's no different from if she had ob's on her actual genitals. you take the same precautions because the virus also sheds from the entire anogenital area periodically, not just from the buttocks when she has active symptoms.
Thanks. I tested negative for both. She has HSV 2 and is now taking acyclovir (previously she had just taken during OB). Again, I'm interested in information that is as specific as possible about relative risks... most things I have read have just said there is some risk, but in the context of committed relationship, I would likely make different decisions if the risk is 5 percent than if the risk is 50 percent... I really appreciate the honesty I have read in other answers on this website.