Hello. I have a very specific herpes case. Please help me understand this. My boyfriend of two year recently came down with herpes symptoms. bumps, ulcers the whole thing. Went to get a culture and blood test and the blood test came back negative. Apparently the culture came back positive, which would conclusively say that i had given this to him and it was his primary
outbreak? We recieved the paperwork the other day and the results are clear. Herpes select hsv1 .73 negative
hsv2 .09 negative
The culture test was unclear. There were two forms. Both of which were dated differently and BOTH stated test was insufficient, no sample tested? They called him the day after the culture and said the lab lost it. He called them 2 days later to go back in and the doctor told him that hey found it! and it was positive. There was NO evidence on paper of this. I have gone for blood work. I have never had any symptoms of genital herpes. But did suffer from cold sores in the last year. I haven't gotten my results back yet but i am so scared. Is it possible for me to never have symptoms and have been extremely sexually active with the same partner for over 2 years and him never have contracted the virus from me until now? Also, I have aquired oral herpes in the last year. So if it was possible that i had hsv2 prior to my current relationship wouldnt it have made it less possible for me to have contracted hsv1? Because his results were so low, hsv2 .09 one week after exposure but with a significant outbreak present, and the hsv1 in the almost positive range is it more of a chance i got genital hsv 1? PLEASE HELP DOCTORS?
once you get your test results back you'll have better answers. You already know you have hsv1 orally which can be transmitted to the genital area through oral sex