I have had hsv 1 orally since a child I am now 26.
A girl kissed me when I had a developing cold sore on my lip and then gave me oral sex.
I started getting paranoid about transmission of my own hsv 1 infection from my mouth via her mouth to my genitals so started researching it to be aware of symptoms.
About 7 days later I notice a red welt/sore on my penis below the head and one on the inside of my buttock. Both disappeared within 12 hrs and were not sore or tender. I was walking around and sweating a lot but don't believe the sores were sweat or chaffe related.
I'm concerned I have contracted hsv1 genitally from the encounter.
Unfortunately I was travelling at the time and didn't get to a doctors for a swab, I have not had any symptom since the initial symptom disappeared within 12 hrs.
I went to a sex clinic when i returned home and they told me they can't test without symptoms but that it was unlikely to be herpes and to assume I didn't have it unless I get a further outbreak. They said that herpes symptoms wouldn't disappear so quickly and that transmission in that way was unlikely. I was told to assume i didn't have it and there was no need to disclose anything to future partners.
I would like a second opinion. My biggest concern is not me but the risk of infecting a future partner without symptoms being present. That would be terrible. Should I disclose a risk? What are your thoughts?
Because you have made a long and durable immune response from having cold sores (HSV 1) since childhood, it is extremely unlikely that you would acquire HSV 1 in a new place.
Think about babies and children who get HSV 1 orally from an adult kissing them. They are not reluctant to touch other parts of their body as well as the cold sore. Yet we don't see them infected their bodies all over the place. This is a demonstration of the principal I'm describing.
I agree that the symptoms that you had sound not at all herpetic due to the short time they were present.
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