Hello. I am seeking help/advice here as a last resort to make sure I am not missing something... I have already done research on the topic, and have spoken with my primary care physician about this in detail...
I was tested in early 2009 for Herpes, after my wife returned a positive test result. My wife believes I was unfaithful, even though the fact is that I have without a doubt NEVER been with anyone other than my wife (in any way -no touching, no kissing, no oral anything, no intercourse, no NOTHING with anyone but my wife) since the day I met her.
I have never had a physical symptom of any type of Herpes. I only sought out the test after my wife's test came back positive for HSV-2 (a result that surprised ME too!)... (I already knew she had oral HSV (presumably type 1) because she has always gotten cold sores under stress or after excessive exposure to the sun on her lips... But HSV-2?! She has never ever shown a symptom of genital herpes, at least, not on her genitals.)
I was actually scared initially that I would be positive simply because my wife tested positive, and we always have unprotected sex whenever we do "it"... However, I was greatly relieved when my test results came back negative. The tests performed were HSV antibody blood tests administered by LabCorp. -Both the IgM ("method one") and the IgG ("method two") antibody tests were run, and BOTH came back as negative. -The result for "method one" was 0.39, which is well below the 0.9 required to even be considered as "equivocal". The result for "method two" simply states "<0.9" -which is clearly noted as a negative result also.
I spoke with my doctor again recently, because my wife claimed to me that during her recent visit to his office, he told her something different than his office assistant told me originally when my test results came back last year... During this most recent visit, my doctor (primary care physician) personally told me in very specific terms that my result last April was negative, and as far as he is concerned, at the time I took the test I did NOT have either HSV-1 or HSV-2. "Period."
He further went on to tell me that even in asymptomatic cases, once a person has been exposed, it takes only 1 to 2 weeks for antibodies to show up -even though the virus may lay dormant for YEARS inside you without any outward sign of symptoms. -I have, however, seen some conflicting information about the topic of asymptomatic/dormant cases when I looked around online... Some sites seem to imply that a dormant case may exist and simultaneously show no antibodies in the host person because the virus has not become active to require antibody production yet... I am confused about that possibility due to the seemingly conflicting information out there. Nevertheless, I honestly have no time frame to reference other than the point at which my wife tested positive. For all I know, she may have been positive for years.
When I questioned the doctor about any need for re-testing me, he stated that the IgM/IgG testing he ordered for me is the most effective HSV test method he knows (99% accuracy on negative test results is what he stated to me), and he did not feel there was any more need for additional testing. When I explained the situation, he agreed to re-test me, and I am now awaiting those results... However, since my wife and I have continued to have unprotected sex together (and neither of us have shown any symptoms of genital herpes -except for a strange spot that comes and goes on my wife's buttocks from time to time), I would really like to get back to the most basic answer related to my ORIGINAL test results from last year.... I.e. can I PROVE that my first blood test was reliable and accurate? Is there anything MORE I should have done??
I know for a fact that I have been completely faithful (physically) to my wife, throughout our entire marriage and prior dating relationship. Unfortunately, at one time about a year ago, I behaved in ways that broke her trust in me, so therefore she does not believe me and she is absolutely convinced that my last test was somehow a false negative. This is compounded with the fact that my wife tested positive for HSV-2 last year after supposedly testing negative before giving birth to our youngest child, and my wife is now convinced that I have been unfaithful regardless of my negative test results saying otherwise...
Frankly, I am now somewhat concerned about the possibility of contracting HSV-2 from her. Now that I have realized that she could be contagious even when not showing any physical symptoms, the issue has been worrying me greatly and I cannot even talk with my wife about it. In my heart I keep wishing that her recent result was somehow a false positive, but it was such a strong result that I'm not sure how possible that is.
Aside from that though, I need to know- how can we determine how accurate the testing was that was done on my wife several years ago when she was pregnant? I have looked through all the paperwork she has at home, and there is NO clear indication of the type of test performed, nor is there any indication of the numerical results of that test... The only thing I found is a generic "screening" test that was done , as well as some vaginal swab testing that came back negative right before she gave birth. Since my wife has had plenty of experience in the sexual relations arena prior to when she and I met each other, I have to wonder if perhaps she hasn't had HSV-2 all along. I do NOT think she has been unfaithful, but I DO wonder if perhaps SHE is the one who had a false negative result in her pre-screening test when she was pregnant... After all, I know for a fact that she already had HSV orally for as long as I've known her -yet her "pregnancy screening" blood test results do NOT even indicate HSV-1 presence. Therefore, how accurate could that screening (blood) test possibly have been when it didn't even pick up the oral HSV she already had? -I understand that the vaginal swab came back negative, but that makes sense! She has never had any vaginal symptoms of any form of STD to my knowledge, so of course a swab would also be negative... But what about this supposed blood test, for which I cannot even find any clear results in her paperwork? Is it possible that my wife has had HSV-2 all this time and it was simply missed during her prenatal blood work?? To me, it seems like that possibility is far more likely given the lack of clear evidence to the contrary than the possibility of my IgG and IgM results somehow being a false negative.
Thank you very much for taking the time to read this; I know it is long. Any advice, thoughts, etc, are greatly appreciated.