I know everyone has probably already seen their fair share of these type questions, but I'll go ahead and ask my own regardless. I'm confused and can't seem to find the accurate information online.
Background: I met my soon to be ex-husband 6 years ago and in the very beginning he slept with another woman. Just a couple weeks later he said he went to a doctor and tested positive for hsv2. (It may have been 2 weeks total... which I thought was too soon to test positive, I always thought he knew he had it before hand but acted like he just found out...) Anywho, I had already had unprotected sex with him (I know, I know, biggest regret of my life...:( ) And several days later thought I broke out in some sort of a rash or something. It was very sore and I assumed it was hsv2. I believed him when he told me it was hsv2 so I just trusted him (fool!!) and went with it. We stayed together so I figured I had it already and so did he so no big deal. We did start using condoms regardless, though.
Fast forward until recently, 6 years later, I ended the relationship and decided to be tested. Well hsv1 negative, hsv2 very low positive. 1.87 igg. I have been taking once daily valtrex as I have been dating someone new so I'm not sure if that effects it or not. Either way, I've never had another 'symptom' since then. Ever. I don't recall anything out of the ordinary, but since I've been looking for it I sometimes think maybe that razor burn bump could be something or what have you. But nothing obvious and nothing even REMOTELY close to that first "outbreak" or whatever it was.
I guess it could be wishful thinking, but is it possible it was a false positive??? 1.87 seems very low from what I've read.
Hi. the value is quite low and maybe a false positive. Taking antivirals can affect the score. If youve never had an outbreak why are you taking them. You need to retest to confirm but you would need to stop taking the meds. Take the biokit which is hsv2 specific in 2 months. Its quick and simple.
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