Trying to understand

Hi,

A couple weeks ago, I had my primary outbreak, which I recently found out was HSV1.  The outbreak occurred around my rectum.  It is very clear who I contracted it from and when, as I have only had sex with one person on one occasion this month, and the blood work showed that this was, in fact, my primary outbreak.  Now, what I'm having a hard time understanding is how It got it in the location that I did.  We had protected sex about 2 and a half weeks prior to my outbreak, and no oral sex at all.  However, he was sick at the time (I had taken him to the doctors, where they put him on antibiotics for tonsilitis).  I was reading that primary outbreaks for oral HSV1 can present themselves in the same way.  If this was his primary outbreak of oral HSV1, could he have given it to me by touching his mouth and then touching me?  I don't even remember being touched anywhere in that region, to be completely honest.  I'm perplexed... it seems like I did everything that I was supposed to, by using a condom, no oral sex, etc... I am such a responsible person and it just seems like this shouldn't have happened to me.  Is there any way that this wasn't transmitted sexually?  

Any help that you could offer would be greatly appreciated.  

Thank you!

B

[slacker101]

Hmmmmmmmmmmmm, a few questions there B. I am not convinced what you had on your anus was in fact a primary outbreak. I am not saying it wasn't BUT (no pun intended), how in the world did a blood test prove this if you just recently contracted this disease? Let's say you woke up one morning, felt real sore there, went to the Doctor's office and he took a blood test and this proved you had HSV1 AND that it was a primary outbreak????? To be honest B, I think you had HSV1 for a long time and the blood test proved that. I am not sure what you had down there but I am just not convinced it was HSV1. The blood test wouldn't have concluded this if it was a new disease. It takes a while for the blood to build up antibodies, as much as 3 months to even show a positive result. The only way really to know it was a primary outbreak is either A). Cultured it but you did not indicate that OR B). Take a blood test, show negative then taking one in a few months and it showing HSV1 which concludes it would have been a new infection since the first one was negative. Another thing, the primary outbreak happens at the site of infection and the fact you both did nothing back there concludes it just simply most likely isn't herpes. Now let me throw a twist in here. If you did have a blood test done and it showed positive for HSV1 and it was acquired genitally, this might have been a recurrent outbreak which could happen anywhere in the boxershorts area. Don't be to fast to point the finger at this guy. Think hard about your sexual history and don't think whom ever you were with had to have signs of HSV to transmit it.

[beckahO]

Thank you for the reply- I should have mentioned that it was, in fact cultured.  My doctor said that due to something in the blood work being either very high or very low (I dnot remember which it was), that they could tell that this was a recent infection.  Since I have only been with him since October, I don't see how it could be anyone else.  Also, the outbreak was exactly 17 days after we were together, which fits in the 'primary outbreak' category, and I had the fever and glands to accompany.  If it wasn't a primary outbreak, wouldnt I have had something similar before?  I've never even had so much as a cold sore, let alone any other bumps or blisters in the genital area.

Thank you for your reply!

B

[beckahO]

Or perhaps it was something in the culture being high or low, and not in the blood.  Either way, the doctor was certain due to the testing that this was the primary.