Hi,
A couple weeks ago, I had my primary outbreak, which I recently found out was HSV1. The outbreak occurred around my rectum. It is very clear who I contracted it from and when, as I have only had sex with one person on one occasion this month, and the blood work showed that this was, in fact, my primary outbreak. Now, what I'm having a hard time understanding is how It got it in the location that I did. We had protected sex about 2 and a half weeks prior to my outbreak, and no oral sex at all. However, he was sick at the time (I had taken him to the doctors, where they put him on antibiotics for tonsilitis). I was reading that primary outbreaks for oral HSV1 can present themselves in the same way. If this was his primary outbreak of oral HSV1, could he have given it to me by touching his mouth and then touching me? I don't even remember being touched anywhere in that region, to be completely honest. I'm perplexed... it seems like I did everything that I was supposed to, by using a condom, no oral sex, etc... I am such a responsible person and it just seems like this shouldn't have happened to me. Is there any way that this wasn't transmitted sexually?
Any help that you could offer would be greatly appreciated.
Thank you!
B