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Unlikely, but possible?
I have done a lot of research on this forum and other websites and I have a few questions about my recent diagnosis.  I had a positive genital hsv-1 swab with a negative blood test (igg) (my doctor said this means recent infection, hesitant to give me a time frame but said probably acquired past couple months).  My outbreak was 3 blisters/bumps, mostly painless, just itchy.  Started to heal/scab before I went to the doctor but still recieved a positive culture.  I have never had symptoms orally or genitally before this outbreak, as supported by my blood work.  My last possible exposure was about 5 weeks before symptoms began to appear.  Now, everything I have read said symptoms, especially with a true primary outbreak, appear within 10 days of exposure sometimes taking as long as 3 weeks.  My last possible exposure was at least 35 days prior to symptoms.  This exposure was genital to genital contact, no oral sex at all.  Should I just take the "symptoms appear within 3 weeks" as a usually and assume that my body just reacted a little differently?  Is it worth it for me to have another blood test even though cultures are seemingly always accurate?  Thanks for the help, just a little frustrated because my infection seems so low-risk but I somehow got it anyways!
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Unlikely, but possible?
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