I am a 24 year old male. Within the last 6 months I've had two sexual encounters with two different women. One both vaginal and oral (March 11, ill-advised unprotected) and one just oral (April 29th, I performed on her). On May 5th I started having a sore throat (white blotchy spots on my tonsils), night sweats, fatigue, and 102+ degree fever. I went to my doctor and all bacterial tests (3) came back negative, I was placed on amoxicillin, and shortly after went back to the doctor (antibiotic was ineffective, but symptoms had nearly all but subsided) and was prescribed Prednisone for safe measure.
I have shown no signs of having the virus genitally at all nor have I had any sores on my lips or mouth. I got a STD screening (blood test) and tested negative although I had the screening on May 10th, which from my understanding would not reflect either encounter yet.
Is it possible I have the virus genitally if I am not experiencing symptoms since my last vaginal encounter on April 29th?
Is there a specific test I should take to determine if I have the virus orally, would I just return to my regular doctor? Any at-home tests that would add clarity? Would it be able accurately reflect results in this time frame?
Is there a possibility I just encountered a virus that isn't sexually transmitted that would have the same symptoms?