My wife of 20+ years had a first outbreak recently and Dr swabbed her and tested her blood. She tested positive for HSV2. I went to get tested and tested negative for both HSV1 and HSV2. Assuming no infidelity, what are the odds that I have remained non-infected if she first became infected before our marriage and showed no symptoms? we dont use any protection and have healthy kids. Is it safe to assume I am very likely to NOT become infected at this point if we continue to live life like we had? Is the "no infidelity" assumption too unrealistic an assumption given the probabilities involved?
no the no infidelity isn't unrealistic at all. if all you did over the years was avoid sex anytime she thought she had anything going on genitally, you were 96% likely each year NOT to contract hsv2 from her. pretty low odds in general.
are you likely to contract hsv2 at some point? Well now that she knows she's infected, you can avoid sex anytime she has anything going on genitally and keep the odds in your favor as they have obviously been for all these years.
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