I am a 54 y/o maried woman who recently found out that her husband has been having unprotected sex with men - throughout our marriage, particularly in the past 2 years. I went to be tested for STD's and tested positive for herepes 1 and 2 - my question is that he tested negative - we have not had a sexual relationship with each other for 10 years (except on the last year) but were very sexually active before that. I have had sex with no-one but him in 31 years - i just don't understand how I have this and he doesn't. I saw his lab work which appears to be accurate. Is is possible that I could have had it all this time from a previous partner and did not give it to him? I had never had an outbreak and yet now that I know I have it I feel pain constantly although have no lesions. In addition, in my paranoia I got checked again and my titer went up from 3.89 - 4.64 - would this indicate a more recent exposure? Also - is it possible I could have contracted this during an exam in my doctors office? The only sexual contact I have had in the last year is with my husband and my gynecologist - maybe I will never know but it is driving me to despair. I have only had 3 sexual partners my entire life and one of them I have already contacted and aksed him to be tested - should I be on anti-virals? Thanks for your response -
the changes in in your igg results aren't all that important.
I recommend you follow up with a herpes WB blood test to see what your status is since you've never had symptoms and your hsv2 igg's are under 5. also make sure that hubby got tested with igg blood testing that was type specific too. what was your hsv1 igg result?
no, you didn't contract hsv2 in the doctors office.
My HSV 1 was positive 2.6 - I had a cold sore on my lip which I had never had before which after everything that he has been doing convinced me to get tested - since I have been told I have HSV 2 I have had burning in my pubic area - no sores but incredible pressure. Is is possible he has not converted? His HSV 1 and 2 were negative. I will follow up and get a WB test (which stands for what exactly - blot test?) - I thought an IGG over .9 was positive. It is hard to believe I could have had this 31 years and not had a symptom and that he is negative - do I need to consider antivirals - or just get the WB done first?
I wouldn't treat at all at this point until you've confirmed your status. If you do end up having hsv2, you and your hubby can discuss if you feel the need to take any precautions from this point forward or not.
thank you! Last question I promise - you have been extremely helpful. All of this came to light secondary to my taking a course of oral steroids for a severe allergy - and of course I am under considerable stress which is likely further reducing my immune response - should I get him to do a WB too?
well that's totally up to the 2 of you. the peace of mind might be worth it for you both. I'd do yours first at least and see what your results are and go from there. The WB isn't cheap unfortunately :(
Also ask as many questions as you need to! I don't limit questions until they've become repetitive !
Ok THanks - do you think that the steroids had anything to do with anything? I know I am looking for explanations which might be impossible to determine but that is the only thing that changed in my medical/sexual history (other than my husband's sexual infidelity and as I said he tested negative). So through 2 children, multiple infertility treatments and tests I have never been told I had herpes or ever had any kind of clinical symptom -
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