I have a couple of questions and this site has been extremely helpful. Three months ago I contracted genital HSV 1 from a gf who performed oral sex on me while having an outbreak orally. We didnt realize she was having one, it was not fully blown and had no symptons. Exactly two weeks later I had an outbreak of genital HSV 1, it is three months later and still no oral HSV1. Is it possible or common to have an initial outbreak of genital and be infected with oral and have no oral symptons at all. Is it possible that I didnt get it orally. We made out for about a minute and then oral sex.
I have read tons of people post how they got genital HSV1 from oral sex from their partner and no one says they got it orally. Is this because they simply have not been kissing during these oral sex encounters, because that seems very unlikely. I read somewhere a doctor said that if you are in my situation and had a genital outbreak with no oral outbreak than you almost definately don't have it orally at all. Would you agree with that at all or will I probably get an oral outbreak in the future?
Also, is it possible that I am one of the majority of people who have oral hsv 1 but never have any symptons at all and AT THE SAME TIME am someone who has outbreaks for genital hsv 1?
Just to let you and others know. My initial outbreak occured 14 days after contact. It was pretty annoying but only a little tender for about 4 days. The rest of the time i couldnt feel it. It got better in around 4 weeks but then like 2 days later I got a second outbreak which was only slightly irritating for about a day. If it keeps going this way, if I have a third outbreak (hopefully not) then I think i might barely even notice it.
Thanks if you are able to answer me. I would really appreciate it.
Unfortunately I don't have a much better answer than what you already know. We don't have a lot of studies that look at this specifically unfortunately. The 2 I've found in the past on it - only looked at folks who developed obvious cold sores at the same time or soon after they were diagnosed as having hsv1 genitally. One study 1/4 of folks contracted hsv1 orally also and the other one it was 50-60% ( can't recall at the time and am not organized to look for them in the huge pile of journal articles I have here ). Pretty much we know that the majority of folks who have hsv1 orally, aren't getting obvious cold sores to know it so no easy ( or cheap ) way to know if you also contracted hsv1 orally unless you get an obvious cold sore.
Thanks Grace. Is it possible to have OB's of genital HSV 1, yet at the same time be one of the majority of people who never get cold sores even thought they have oral HSV 1? Or is it like if you get a genital OB then your body doesnt completely suppress the virus and you will be getting cold sores as well?
If someone is getting mild genital OB's for HSV 1, does that also mean their oral OB's will be very mild?
it depends if you have been infected in the lips if you have HSV-1 genitally doesnt mean you will have it orally you may be infected only genitally where your gf performed sex on you but not in the mouth or meaby you have it orally but not experiencing it at the same time.
I know that just because you have it genitally, it does NOT mean you also have it orally. there was also some oral contact though. I was very curious because I am terrified of getting it on my face and I READ from a doctor on a site like this that if you are having your first outbreak genitally and have had nothing orally then it means that you don't have it orally, but It didn't sound right to me.
I also read, but am not sure if I believe, that if you have it very mildly in one area it will be very mild in the other. For example, your first OB genitally is supposed to be really bad, but if it was just mild then maybe your outbreaks orally, will also be just mild.
Is it semi-normal for a first OB genitaly of HSV1 to just have a small bump without it ever bursting or forming an ulcer or scabbing over. If it is just like a little lump that gets tender for a few days but then just goes down to normal in another two to three weeks but never uclering?
After the initial infection, oral ob's and genital ob's would be pretty much unrelated from there on out. Most folks who contract hsv1 genitally tend to have a "classic" ob of it because they don't already have hsv in their body to take the edge off of things - for instance folks who have hsv1 orally and then contract hsv2 genitally, tend to have a mild initial genital ob because the hsv1 oral infection has given the body close enough antibodies to help kick a little hsv2 butt when it sets up housekeeping in the genital area. In folks who don't have hsv1 orally first, when they contract a genital hsv2 infection they tend to have the "classic" genital ob - obvious lesions, lots of them and a lot of pain.
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