very confused...

Just the other day, I was diagnosed with HSV1 in my genitals (after discovering an outbreak).  I was so shocked that it was herpes because I have never had any sort of outbreak anywhere before...but what is strange is that the only person I've been with in the past 5 yaers has been my husband...who gets cold sores on his lips (his whole family has them - had them since he was a kid).  So what is strange to me is that we've gone this whole time without me having an outbreak anywhere and then all of a sudden I get it in my genitals...why didnt I get it on my lips first??  I've been doing research and have read that HSV1 "prefers" the lips/mouth area but its now becoming more common to get HSV1 on the genitals.  I also read that if you already have HSV1, that your body is more likely to fight off the virus in other areas...so my question is since my husband already has cold sores, will he be less likely to get HSV1 on his genitals from me??  Anyone have any insight?