Hi - I recently had a lesion on the tip of my penis removed surgically. I had the lesion for as long as I can remember (pre-dating any sexual encounters). The urologist came back with a dermatology report that states "the differential diagnosis lies between a genital seborrheic keratosis and an older lesion of condyloma acuminatum. In light of molecular biologic data demonstrating that many genital seborrheic keratoses harbor HPV DNA, distinction between those two entities on genital skin may be one of little clinical significance." I was too flustered to ask questions at the time and am unable to reach said doctor at the moment... my main takeaway was that I probably have the HPV virus... but then he wasn't definitive about it.
My questions are simply these: Does this mean I have HPV/Genital Warts? What is the distinction between a genital seborrheic keratosis and condyloma acuminatum? How can I have HPV if I had it before I every had sexual contact? Thank you for help.
Condyloma acuminatum means genital wart. A senile wart also called as seborrheic keratosis is a noncancerous benign skin growth that originates in keratinocytes and are round or oval, flat or slightly elevated, light tan to black and very small to more than 2.5 centimetres in size lesions which may resemble warts.
It is very difficult to precisely confirm a diagnosis without examination and investigations and the answer is based on the medical information provided. For exact diagnosis, you are requested to consult your doctor. I sincerely hope that helps. Take care and please do keep me posted on how you are doing.
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