In the late 90's (1997?) my then girlfriend informed me that she had been diagnosed with genital warts while under going her annual exam. At that time, I had never even known to look at such things. She wondered if she had received them from a recent ex-boyfriend who was in the navy. I was sexually active prior to that relationship as well, married to an unfaithful wife. Not long after, I did develop warts on my penis which were removed after two or three visits. The doctor seemed to imply that this problem was over, so to be honest, I rarely thought of them again.
I met my wife in 2001. She was married prior and sexually active with one other man after her divorce. All seemed well. We had a child in 2005 with my wife receiving regular pelvic exams before and to the present (Aug 2015). She has never been told of any abnormalities or noticed any.
Through the years, once in a while, I would notice a what I thought to be a hard skin-tag like spot on my penis, but those would seem to just disappear. Just last Saturday, November 7, 2015, I found an actual cauliflower wart on my penis. It is pretty small with no other warts visible anywhere I can see. (I might have felt one of those skin tags in the general area a while ago, but I am unsure.
Question is: Can this outbreak be from the original infection of HPV/Genital Warts? I have not had sex with anyone since meeting my wife, and I just do not suspect her to have been unfaithful.
My physician's office referred me to have the wart removed and took a urine sample to rule out other sexually transmitted diseases. They were vague in answering the question I posed above.
Any input would be most helpful. Sure hate to end up with a marital issue to boot.