My wife came up positive for HPV and cervical dysplasia on her last PAP smear. I seen the report by the doctor that stated that my wife has no history of an STD and that she should probably look to have the LEEP procedure done. I have had warts appear on my genitals that seem to come and go, but I have never been with another woman but my wife. My wife said she told the doctor about that and the doctor said that she did not have an STD. Everywhere I read I see that it says that HPV is spread skin to skin and that genital warts are an STD. My question is can my wife have HPV without it being from an STD?
confusing wording here u typped somewhat....HPV is an std that causes dysplasia.ur wife can have high risk cervical hpv minus low risk.....if u have low risk wart type it is amazing that she does not have warts.Genital warts are sexually transmitted and just don't appear out of nowhere.No ur wife cannot have HPV without it being and std.....thats what human papilloma virus stands for!
Thats what I told my wife and she said that her doctor told her that everyone has the HPV in them and that it manifest itself sometimes as a a virus that can be an STD and sometimes it turns into the virus that is not contagious and can create cervical cancer. But I read the doctors report that said that "there is no history of an STD' but that she tested positive for HPV and cervical dysplasia
i disagree with her doctor!go to the right of this post and see the Experts forum-std's.You can read the archives uner HPV transmission and genital warts by Drs.Hook and Handsfield.they have 30 years of xperience tween them in this area.
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