I was recently diagnosed with HPV and mild cervical dysplasia. I do not and never had any warts or noticeable signs that I had HPV; I only found out because of a couple abnormal PAPs & a biopsy.
I have been in a mutually faithful monogamous sexual relationship for awhile. I was wondering if we could be preventing the HPV infection from getting better, or causing reinfection, by continuously passing the virus between each other? Or would we both develop some sort of immunity to the strain that we both have, which would prevent reinfection from each other from the same strain of HPV?
I am in a similar situation. I recently got HPV (type 39 - high risk for cervical cancer; results show some abnormal cervical cells...doctors say all we can do it wait and see HPV leaves my body and if my body kills off the bad cells) from my partner. We, too, are in a faithful monogamous sexual relationship, however after being diagnosed I stopped us having sex completely. I'm too scared of getting re-infected with the virus, or making the virus even worse than what it currently is. I am not sure if this is a possibility or not. If I have protected sex with my partner, while currently having HPV type 39 with abnormal cevical cells (ACSUS) could it decrease my chances of my body healing itself? Could it increase my chances of this developing into cervical cancer??
Also, I am afraid of getting infected with even more strains of HPV than I currently have. Because there is no test for HPV in men, we do not know what types he has. Apparently he definitely has TYPE 39 because that is what I now have - is this the case???
If someone can please reply to PPC11 and myself, it would be much appreciated.
As sunshine said you cannot re-infect eachother, once you get over the hpv then you are immune to that particular type so do not worry about having sex as it will have no effect.
If you were both in faithful relationships then the hpv would of been formant in your bodies for however long, it is rare but it can and does happen.
I have been with my fiance for over 5 years now. Within the first year of dating I developed Genital Warts. I went to my Gynocologist and had them removed, and I haven't developed any more since those 2. What I don't understand is that I have never had a test show anything abnormal such as HPV. How can that be? The only thing that has ever showed up on any of my PAPs is Bacterial Vaginosis, which was not even in the same time frame. Can anyone explain this to me? It would be very much appreciated, it just doesn't make any sense to me.
The type of HPV that causes warts is a low risk strain and the type that causes cell changes that show up on paps is a high risk strain.
Bacterial vaginosis isn't a STD, it is an infections that can be associated with sex. I had it from the vinegar used during my biopsy.
This isn't to say you have never been exposed to high risk strain (s), many people are and never have symptoms. Don't worry about it, there are rarely serious health issues it is just very important to have your yearly paps.
the main problem is that most doctor's don't even test for HPV.. .so you may have had it and never knew.. I just found out today (my diagnosis was almost 2 months ago) that not only do I have the high risk type, but that my doctor ONLY test for the high risk type.. (not that she told me that).. so that might be the answer to your question...
But like Mags says, don't worry... if they haven't shown back up you have probably cleared the virus... Congrats!!
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