I began having unprotected sexual intercourse with a new partner in 2009 who was dx with genital warts. Within one year I acquired HPV with my pap result being HSIL. After a colposcopy and biopsy, the results showed LSIL. My OBGYN chose the "watch and wait" approach, and with pap smears every 3-6 months, my paps are now ASCUS and I am HPV negative. My partner still has recurrence of genital warts. I was vaccinated with Gardasil before having HPV and before becoming sexually active with said partner. It has been 4 years and I have not gotten warts, I am wondering what my true risk is and since I have already been exposed if it matters that we use protection when he is experiencing an outbreak. Does his resistance to clearing warts speak more to his immune system or to the persistence of his strain of the virus? Is the strain I acquired different than his because mine caused cervical cell changes rather than the low-risk warts? Please let me know. Thanks!
Everything I've read online says that latex condoms helps a person recovering from genital warts. The recovery period is 2 years but for some its longer. Having unprotected sex along with a low immune system may be resulting in his re-occurences. IMO, when he is having an outbreak latex condoms should be used so his warts go away quickly. When he is clear, unprotected sex is fine since you both share the same strains.
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