Person A (me/male) slept with woman B roughly three (2006) years ago. Almost a year later (2007), person A slept with woman C and and has been with only person C since. Person C showed symptoms for HPV about three months ago (APR 2009). Now (JUL 2009), person A (me) has started to show symptoms (warts on penis
). She (woman C) says she got it from me. If so, I had no idea I had it, have not had any symptoms at all, and why did she have it first? I think it might have come from her though she (person C) denies it. I am going to see a doctor in a couple weeks about this but I was hoping I could get some information a little sooner. Is this senario possible (assuming that person C has only slept with person A)?
. People "count" virginity differently, but penetration isn't needed for transmission.
Or the virus was dormant in your system, activated, but because of differences in your immune systems, Warts appeared earlier, or were more noticible on your girlfriend earlier.