I just had my annual pap smear last week. I'm 44 and have annual paps since I was 16 - all normal, never an abnormal result. I just switched GYN and this was my first visit. She told me there were new guidelines with paps and that if everything was ok that I wouldn't need another pap for 3 years. I got a letter from her over the weekend that stated: "your recent pap smear showed no cytologic or cellular abnormalities; however, testing for the high risk subtypes of HPV was positive"......the letter goes on to say that "most women will clear it within 3 years of acquisition".
Firstly, I do NOT have warts - never have. I have never had any kind of STD for that matter, well until now. I'm completely confused. Im going to assume that I have never been tested for HPV. Is that a valid assumption?
"most women will clear it within 3 years of acquisition". Does that mean I have recently acquired it or is it possible that I have always had it and never tested? Or that I have always had it and now it's presenting itself?
The letter says I should come back for a yearly pap....should I go every 6 months ... Should I get a second opinion. I'm totally perplexed by this diagnosis and any help would be appreciated.
The high risk strains does not produce warts. Only the low risk strains do.
Sometimes the test results are invalid and a re-test changes the results. And yes, you may not have been tested for HPV before. They are testing older women now almost routine. You will never be able to tell when you were exposed to it. Could have been 2-6 months ago or 10 years ago. You should go back in 6 months to a year, if you are covered or can afford it.
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