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This forum is an un-mediated, patient-to-patient forum for questions and support regarding HPV issues such as: genital warts, causes, diagnosis, cervical cancer, HPV in men, PAP tests, treatment, telling your spouse or partner
Neither showed visible signs of warts at the time and I had a clear pap smear before sleeping with either of them on that occasion. Neither noticed any warts on me at the time either.
Prior to sleeping with either men I was in a long monogomous five year relationship with a man who was truely virginal when we began seeing each other. Prior to that I had a few boyfriends and always used a condom.
My question is how likely is it that I had HPV and showed no signs or symptoms before sleeping with the two men? Without signs or symptoms can I pass HPV on if it's still in the incubation period? Is it possible that the guy I didn't actually let have vaginal intercourse gave me the warts? Or more likely that the other guy I've been seeing for a while gave it to me? Is the whole question of who gave it to who really moot? Could I have gotten it from one and given it to the other within the space of days? Or should I be crawling through my dusty black book calling my poor virginal ex and every other guy I ever slept with so they can go and get tested?
They won't test men for hpv. The fact is almost everyone gets some sexually transmitted strain of hpv but most people will never ever show symptoms. You could have contracted the virus before your five year relationship, or you could have contracted it from either of the two men. Sexual intercourse is not necessary for transmission of the virus because it is a skin virus. All that is needed is genital skin to skin contact. Condoms protect against the virus about 70% of the time. You will never find out where you got the virus from, as it is easily contracted, so I wouldn't worry about contacting past lovers.