, but all the same I am left wondering if I contracted the virus or even transmitted it to her. As men almost never show symptoms of HPV and there is no test, there is no way for me to tell.
Whilst Dr. Handsfield advises patients to consider themselves "cured" after 6 months of clearing the virus, I wonder how this advice translates to men who have never displayed symptoms, and thus can't clear them. The girl who contracted warts had a very traumatic
and persisted for about 4 months. I would feel pretty awful if I was to give this to someone else, and I would feel even worse if I did so without informing that person of the risks she was taking prior to having sex
So do I need to have the conversation with every possible future partner, that I MIGHT have this STD? And is there a similar sort of window after infection that I can consider myself, if I had contracted the virus, to be "cleared"?
Also, I'm not sure if i've understood this but maybe someone can clear this up: does the strain
that cause warts in women always cause warts in men? Or can a man carry the wart causing strain without developing any symptoms at all?
I appreciate the good Doctor's frank and honest advice, and also realise that these questions border the moral/ethical, for which it's not really fair to expect a definitive answer. All the same your opinion is valued. Many thanks in advance