Hello all,
I understand this question has been asked numerous times and I have done extensive research on here and alternative forums, however for piece of mind I still feel the need to ask the question
I have been seeing a girl for a couple of months now, who has the genital strand of hpv, we haven't had sex just hands and I have received oral of her.
She has had it for around 18 months, or first showed signs 18 months ago with quite a bad outbreak of warts. Her doctor thought at first they were just skin tags and said they would go away, they didn't so eventually she went to the local clinic and had them frozen off. They returned and now she is on her third outbreak but just two at the top of her area, she says they are smaller and look different to previous and each time they have been less extreme. She currently uses a cream every other night which has reduced them but not gotten rid completely
I have no idea if I have hpv or ever had hpv, but I have never had any STDs granted you can't test for hpv in a male but I have also never had any genital warts.
Still this still concerns me as I have read so many contrasting opinions and only a 70% protection with condoms alone. Also would I be open to infecting myself if I gave her oral sex?
I also would like to know if for example we were having a sexual relationship and she had gone a while without an outbreak would it be unwise if she was on birth control for me not to use a condom? As I have done with previous partners as a relationship and mutual trust has developed
Thanks in advance for any replies. I understand I've asked a lot of questions but don't want to potentially stop myself from seeing a girl I'm quite fond off, and also don't want to put myself at risk if the relationship didn't last of having to have the conversation with future partners that I will probably have a stand of hpv that may have resulted in genital warts
Andy