smear had been clear until recently when results turned up hpv virus. I read that the virus can be passed thru skin contact. The 'best' scenario it seems to me is that an infected person touched his/her genitals, then without washing his/her hands
had physical but non-sexual contact with my husband who then without washing had contact with my genitals. Is there any other possibility than that my husband had some kind of sexual
I don't understand your "best scenario". Who would be touching your husband's genitals in a non-sexual way.....besides a doctor.
HPV is almost always transmitted through skin to skin contact....and that means infected skin to infected skin. There may be a theoretical risk for getting it though hand
touching, the sharing of towels etc...but this risk is so low, that it is practically zero.
HPV infections can show up years and even decades after exposure, therefore a HPV infection does not imply that anybody has been unfaithful Intercourse is not needed for transmission just the genital to genital contact.
Maybe you or your husband were one of the few people who got HPV without sexual contact. Perhaps either your or your husband were exposed to the virus before marriage.