I'll make this short as possible. My boyfriend and I live together and have been in a monogamous relationship for two years. When we first met, being responsible and safe, we both got tested for STDs before starting a sexual relationship-- we were both clear. After three months of having unprotected sex, I had my annual pap smear and my first ever HPV test -- both negative (which has now been a year and a half ago). Just recently, I noticed small skin colored bumps that look like moles on my boyfriend's penis. He has an appointment with a clinic next week to have them examined. Here are my questions:
1. Does the HPV test screen only for high risk cancer causing types of HPV or does it also test for low risk types? Also, does the HPV test screen for active HPV infection only or does it test for the presence of HPV in general (whether active or dormant)?
2. If we were having unprotected sex for three months before I had the HPV test, does that mean I was not infected at that time? (I guess question #1 will answer this question)
3. If my boyfriend does have genital warts (which I understand is usually caused by strains that DO NOT cause cervical cancer), should I get another HPV test if I was negative just one and a half years ago?
4. After reading the other posts and replies, I am assuming that if he does have genital warts I should consider myself exposed and also have HPV. If this is the case, should we start using a condom now (especially during visible warts) to decrease the chances of me getting them as well or does it even matter?
Thank you for your time, I appreciate any information you can give me.
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